Erik Reuter wrote: > > If they are not orthogonal, then it should be possible > and logically consistent to apply the methods of one to > the other. My question is meant to explore the > consequences of applying science to religion. > By orthogonal, I understand that the belief in science should be totally uncorrelated to the belief in religion, so that there should be an equal number of people that are (a) very religious and very scientifically-oriented (b) anti-religious and very scientifically-oriented (c) anti-religious and anti-science and (d) very religious and anti-science.
I think that sets (a) and (c) are not null and much smaller than sets (b) and (d), so that the axes make an angle of 120 degrees. The intersection of the axes represent those that don�t care about science and don�t care about religion. BTW, I think applying the methods of science to religion only makes sense to those that are in the sets (a) and (b), and since there are more people in (b) than in (a), I think most experiments were conducted in order to disprove religious claims. Alberto Monteiro
