Recurring discussions on Marx and anti-Semitism have raised some questions for me. My father-in-law's mother's family was Jewish, back in the 1800s. They converted to Christianity in that century before emmigrating to the US. Other parts of the family did not convert, and remained in Germany until many of them died in the Holocaust.
If I understand that Jewishness passes through the mother, then my father-in-law would, technically, be Jewish. But, he was raised Christian by folks who were raised Christian. Could he be anti-Semetic? Would a policy of induced conversions: accepting Jews who converted to Christianity as full citizens, but persecuting those who don't be anti-Semetic. Would the Jews who converted and then participated in the persecutions be acting in an anti-Semetic way. If they didn't, but their children did, would they be anti-Semetic? What about grandchildren, etc.? There is a saying in Christianity that no one has faith like a convert. People who use to be X, but are now Y are often the strongest in condemming those who are still X. I don't think this is just a Christian phenomenon. So, I'd postulate that folks who agree with the premise that its Jewish culture that's the problem, not Jewish biology, and that any Jew that renounced his/her traditon and accept another way of living (e.g. Christianity) are anti-Semetic, even though they will accept people who have Jewish ancestory as good folks and their equals. Dan M. _______________________________________________ http://www.mccmedia.com/mailman/listinfo/brin-l
