----- Original Message ----- 
From: "Russell Chapman" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>

> Umm - the pill prevents ovulation. How can there be any level of
> abortion, silent or not, if there was never any fertilization. By this
> logic, not having sex during the fertile stage of the cycle is an
> abortion. Abstinence = Abortion?
>
> How can a well educated and "enlightened" society produce people with
> this sort of logic?
>
> Cheers
> Russell C.

The argument is that a small percentage of the time, ovulation occurs in spite
of the pill. The fact you are taking the pill means that in the event that
happens, and in the event fertilization occurs during that time,  the
fertilized egg won't implant, and the process is therefore equivalent to
abortion.

I don't have the article handy to check this, but I believe it said that the
percentage of fertilized eggs that went unimplanted depended very much on
which group was talking about it. The "this is abortion" group claims that the
official percentages are too low, and seriously underestimate of the
"problem." If anyone is really curious enough about the actual numbers cited,
I could go check it later.

Personally, I'd love for them to invent a male pill, and let the men have
their hormones mucked around with instead, but I'm not holding my breath
there... (But that's another soap box for another time)

-Amanda


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