> one worthwhile addition that we know to work but was not
>implemented in the 1+0 ply evaluation, which has the same
>computational cost as 1 ply but is better. (some like to cal it 0.5
>ply, some 1.5 ply, but neither name make sense to me) .basically it is
>simply averaging the 0 and 1 ply equities (i think the best weights
>were .6 something).

Just curious, can somebody breifly explain the origin of the odd-even
effect ? I've often heard people saying "oh, that's normal" about it,
but I haven't yet found an explanation.

MaX.




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