> Judah wrote: > > Actually she noted that capitalism is generally considered to have not taken > hold until at least the Victorian era and considering you are trying to talk > about a well regulated capitalistic market you certainly can't be talking > about pre-anti trust. The Sherman Act was 1890 you are really looking at > more like 120 years, max. >
Interesting conjecture good sir, but I would posit that since "capitalism" is both a subjective term, but also a retroactive definition, it's use can be applied in many contexts. For example, Wikipedia notes that: "Capitalistic economic practices incrementally became institutionalized in England between the 16th and 19th centuries, although some features of capitalist organization existed in the ancient world, and early aspects of merchant capitalism[10] flourished during the Late Middle Ages.[11] Capitalism has been dominant in the Western world since the end of feudalism." Which would mean that your conjecture about the use of a subjective definition would, in fact, be wrong. However, what's most important here is that we understand how truly worthless all the work done around this point is. Clearly it's some arcane nether-path only explored due to your inability to have a discussion with someone who - and this isn't clear - disagrees with you. You could learn a lot from Spock. ~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~| Want to reach the ColdFusion community with something they want? Let them know on the House of Fusion mailing lists Archive: http://www.houseoffusion.com/groups/cf-community/message.cfm/messageid:298787 Subscription: http://www.houseoffusion.com/groups/cf-community/subscribe.cfm Unsubscribe: http://www.houseoffusion.com/cf_lists/unsubscribe.cfm?user=89.70.5
