So Hispanics are less than blacks when it comes to historic discrimination? What about American Indians? I'm not talking about historic discrimination, I'm talking about how different groups are used in counting. If a test has some Hispanics passing and no blacks, it can be called biased against non-whites. Aren't Hispanics usually grouped as non-whites? There are times when blacks alone are considered non-whites and times when all non-whites are considered non-whites.
On Tue, Jun 30, 2009 at 2:22 PM, Jerry Johnson<[email protected]> wrote: > > I would say protected more based on historic discrimination. > > On Tue, Jun 30, 2009 at 2:15 PM, Michael Dinowitz < > [email protected]> wrote: > >> >> I would not say more valued. I'd say counted differently as needed. ~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~| Want to reach the ColdFusion community with something they want? Let them know on the House of Fusion mailing lists Archive: http://www.houseoffusion.com/groups/cf-community/message.cfm/messageid:299313 Subscription: http://www.houseoffusion.com/groups/cf-community/subscribe.cfm Unsubscribe: http://www.houseoffusion.com/cf_lists/unsubscribe.cfm?user=11502.10531.5
