> "The Greek version reflects a Hebrew text more than a thousand years older
> than the Hebrew text used as the standard for the King James."
Maybe if a Jew was asked then they would understand the Hebrew from a
thousand years earlier. The Hebrew didn't change and the study of it has
been continuous. The Greek reflects the problems with any translation;
culture and time. Take a single word - Mi-chashepha. The word means
sorceress. The root is Kishuf, a type of magic. The commentary on it goes on
for pages as to what it means and why the feminine is used. The Greek
translation was to a word that meant 'one who performs magic with herbs and
potions'. (I have the exact at home). Over time this was translated and
retranslated till the word came out as poisoner. Is this the right
translation? Nope. Is it a perfect example of word drift due to multiple
translations and time? Yep. Is the word still understood as it's original in
Hebrew? Yep.
The Greek is a better source for translation than the Latin or middle
English, but still inferior to the Hebrew.
As someone mentioned virgin earlier, the word used in the Torah that is used
by Christians to show that Jesus would have a virgin birth does not mean
virgin. It means young woman. Its IMPLIED meaning is virgin as a young woman
should be one. Implied is not literal.
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