actually this is to solve by a language ethymologist , because there are different rules in every language for developement...... as explained with differnt pronounciation of greek and roman words. The point is; how logical is a mixup in the 18th century, when most alterations in European languages already had taken place especially in Portugal and England. And how much did 'archenemy' spain influence the topic by AVOIDING the same instrument? Martina ------
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