On 12 Mrz., 01:58, Richard Newman <holyg...@gmail.com> wrote: > > Is there a good reason for this behavior? What is the rationale behind > > it? > > Read this. > > http://clojure.org/reader#syntax-quote
Thank you for pointing me to this reference. As far as I understand it, the difference between a quoted expression and a syntax-quoted expression is that in the syntax-quated expression, all symbols will be qualified, whereas in the quoted expression they will not be. I guess I have to rephrase my previous questions to make them more clear: Why was this particular behavior chosen? What is the benefit of having quote and syntax-quote behaving differently in this regard? Suppose I wanted to write my own version of = called (myeql a b) such that user> (myeql '(v 1) `(v 1)) true I would have to walk the expression tree in both expressions and replace all unqualified symbols with the respective qualified symbols. How would I go about this? Is there an idomatic way to achieve this? Thank you, Felix -- You received this message because you are subscribed to the Google Groups "Clojure" group. To post to this group, send email to clojure@googlegroups.com Note that posts from new members are moderated - please be patient with your first post. To unsubscribe from this group, send email to clojure+unsubscr...@googlegroups.com For more options, visit this group at http://groups.google.com/group/clojure?hl=en
