Hi David,

any? would be redundant and less general than some, if I am not mistaken.
Compare the docstrings for the hypothetical "any?".

(some p coll)
Returns the *first logical true value* of (pred x) for any x in coll,
  else *nil*.

(any? p coll)
Returns *true* if (pred x) is logical true for any x in coll,
 else *false*.


Since *nil* and *false* are both falsy, "some" can be used as a predicate
that is truthy
when it finds truthy result, otherwise falsy. This is exactly the behavior
expected from
an any? function.

"some" is a poster boy for Clojure's well thought out truthyness system,
this is a great example
of the types of general functions it allows.

Perhaps a pointer to "some" should be added in the docstring of "not-any?".
Although
a quick look at the source makes it crystal clear. I wasn't aware of
"not-any?"s existence,
maybe noting it in "some"s docstring could be beneficial also.

Thanks,
Ambrose

On Tue, Jun 14, 2011 at 3:08 PM, de1976 <davidescobar1...@gmail.com> wrote:

> Hello everyone. In looking through the API documentation, I've noticed
> that there is a "not-any?" function available, but there is no
> corresponding inverse "any?" function that I can find. There are,
> however, "every?" and "not-every?" functions available. The closest I
> could find was "some", but wouldn't it make sense to have an "any?"
> function for more obvious consistency? Thanks.
>
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