>
> There is no one who understands `(if (seq thing)` who wouldn't understand 
> `(if (not (empty? thing))` or, better, `(if (not-empty? thing)`. The 
> converse is not true. That suggests that the latter should be the idiom


No, it doesn't. That simply illustrates that idioms must be learned, as in 
any kind of language.
 

> But, for the rest of us,
>

I don't believe you speak for the rest of us. Not for me, anyway.

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