There are 2 messages in this issue.

Topics in this digest:

1.1. Re: What psychological effect does word order have in languages?    
    From: Matthew A. Gurevitch
1.2. Re: What psychological effect does word order have in languages?    
    From: Jeffrey Daniel Rollin-Jones


Messages
________________________________________________________________________
1.1. Re: What psychological effect does word order have in languages?
    Posted by: "Matthew A. Gurevitch" [email protected] 
    Date: Sun Feb 24, 2013 8:31 am ((PST))

 Dear Conlang-L,

According to what I know of Latin, in "summā cum laude," the "cum" is a 
preposition that introduces an "ablative of manner." With some prepositions, 
especially in more poetic texts, adjectives precede the preposition that 
introduces its related noun for stylistic reasons.
 
I have no experience with trees, so I cannot comment on that.

All my best,
Matthew Gurevitch

 

-----Original Message-----
From: Hugo Cesar de Castro Carneiro <[email protected]>
To: CONLANG <[email protected]>
Sent: Sat, Feb 23, 2013 4:45 pm
Subject: Re: What psychological effect does word order have in languages?


On Sat, Feb 23, 2013 at 1:33 PM, Hugo Cesar de Castro Carneiro
<[email protected]> wrote:
> This thread reminds me of a Latin sentence structure I cannot understand.
>
> I usually see adpositions coming either before the phrase it modifies
> (preposition) or after it (postposition).
>
> Can someone explain me what is the role of the word "cum" in "SVMMA CVM
> LAVDE"?
> "Summa laude" is a noun phrase in the ablative case. Is "cum" a preposition?
> Or a postposition?


A further question: Can someone show me the syntactic tree structure
of this sentence?

 





Messages in this topic (28)
________________________________________________________________________
1.2. Re: What psychological effect does word order have in languages?
    Posted by: "Jeffrey Daniel Rollin-Jones" [email protected] 
    Date: Sun Feb 24, 2013 9:13 am ((PST))

Sent from my iPhone

On 21 Feb 2013, at 15:28, Roger Mills <[email protected]> wrote:

> --- On Wed, 2/20/13, Matthew Boutilier <[email protected]> wrote:
> But *"Once dreary a midnight upon" would have been an impossible choice for
> Poe (unless he were writing in Turkish, incidentally).
> 
> Where do you draw the line between poetically grammatical and totally
> ungrammatical?
> ============================================
> When you break up constituents (as your example breaks up a prep.phrase.)

Sorry, but that's neither a necessary nor a sufficient condition, even of it 
were true. In Turkish, the said word order would be acceptable (a) because 
Turkish uses prepositions and (b) the numeral "bir" means "one" if it is placed 
before any adjectives, but "a(n)" if it is the last constituent before the 
noun. Furthermore, many Australian languages are non-configurational, (meaning 
that the elements of a constituent need not be contiguous), and Latin and 
Ancient Greek approach non-configurationality in poetry.

Jeff





Messages in this topic (28)





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