Responding to Bob Stokes' 2 posts, I have a question I cannot figure
out how to ask tactfully. I hope I don't sound like a total bigot in
this age of political correctness, but: <puts on flame retardant suit>
if all men (I use the term inclusively, like it used to be before
feminism came about) are created equal, why do some people need special
laws to give them advantages over others? Does anyone have a
perspective on this that I may be missing? Thanks.
Tenorlove
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