On 12/2/05, Robert Citek <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote: > Yes, I could use some help in understanding. What I don't quite > understand is why I have to specify the IP address on both machines. > I would have imagines that OpenVPN would act like any other daemon.
VPN is not really like any other daemon. You use VPN to virtually put a remote machine on a private LAN. To be on such a LAN, you need an IP address _on that LAN_. Therefore, the VPN client creates a network interface (logically separate from the interface associated with your network card, but physically using that card to send and receive packets) and this interface gets at IP on the private LAN the server resides on. I am not familiar with OpenVPN, but I would guess the server would have some configuration/setting that would allow you to tell it how it should get IPs for the connecting clients (either point it to a DHCP server or give it a range of IP addresses it is allowed to hand out). dd -- David Dooling _______________________________________________ CWE-LUG mailing list [email protected] http://www.cwelug.org/ http://www.cwelug.org/archives/ http://www.cwelug.org/mailinglist/
