From: "Richard Loweth", [EMAIL PROTECTED]
It was argued that returning to the pre-1920 situation of no firearms
controls would be, from what I read, of benefit to criminals. The author
forgets two things: first firearms were controlled prior to 1920...that
control was by price. Like the quote about the Ritz Hotel (it) they were
available to everybody; secondly as America has shown the potential
criminal, armed or otherwise, would have to also gamble of his potential
victim being armed.
I can, just, remember pre-1967 and no shot gun controls. Where was the
problem?
--
I think it is erroneous to argue that no controls existed prior
to 1920, because people ignore the Defence of the Realm regulations
in force during the Great War. The prospect of those controls
being lifted is what led to the Firearms Act 1920.
Steve.
Cybershooters website: http://www.cybershooters.org
List admin: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
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