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THE DAFYOMI DISCUSSION LIST
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Rosh Kollel: Rabbi Mordecai Kornfeld
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Sanhedrin 058: Eshes Aviv according to Rebbi Eliezer
Shlomo Steinhart <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> asked:
I am having difficulty in understanding the Gemorrah on Daf 58a, about
half way done.
Just after the "Omar Mar...", the Gemorrah asks according to R'Eliezer -
"Eimeh Eishes Oviv ?", to which the Gemorrah answers - "Hiynu Be'ishto Ve'lo
Be'eshes Chavero". The Gemorrah seems to be saying that Eshes Oviv is
already included in Eishes Chavero (Eishes Chavero having been learnt out
from "Be'ishto" above) and therefore Ossur according to R'Eliezer. However,
from the Beraissa at the top of the page - which the Gemorrah has just
explained is R'Meir ACCORDING TO R'Eliezer - we see that Eishes Oviv is
Mutar ! ("Le'ituye Eishes Oviv"). It is true that that Beraissa is talking
about a "semi-Ger semi-Ben Noach", but, as Rashi explained on the top of the
page, the Rabanan made a Gezeira that anything that was Ossur to him while
he was a Ben Noach will be Ossur to this "semi-Ger semi-Ben Noach".
I thought to answer by saying that R'Meir is only going according to
R'Eliezer in certain details of the Beraissa, but doesn't hold like him in
every issue. Is this right ?
I think I may be missing a simple point here !
Thank you in advance for any answer.
Shlomo Steinhart, Ramat Bet Shemesh, Israel.
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The Kollel replies:
Rebbi Eliezer does not prohibit Eshes Aviv to a Ben No'ach *after his
father dies* (or after his father divorces his wife). That is why we
identify the Beraisa of Rebbi Meir with the opinion of Rebbi Eliezer. The
Gemara with which you are having difficulty is asking why Rebbi Eliezer
does not learn that the word "Aviv" refers to his father's wife *while the
father is alive*, who is Asur. The Gemara answers that such an Eshes Aviv
would be Asur because of Eshes Ish.
The Gemara then continues to ask, why didn't Rebbi Eliezer explain that the
word "Aviv" in the Pasuk refers to Eshes Aviv *after the father dies*
(which is indeed Mutar according to Rebbi Eliezer). The Gemara answers that
the verse implies that it is referring to a blood relative and not a
marital relative.
M. Kornfeld
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