On Fri, Nov 01, 2002 at 10:51:50AM -0800, Thomas Bushnell, BSG wrote: > Javier Fernández-Sanguino Peña <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> writes: > > > No it doesn't. > > The original copyright applies to the original work. > > The translation's copyright applies to the translation. > > I'm afraid you are quite wrong. A translated work is a product of both > the original author and the translator, and both have an independent > copyright.
Show me where the international law says so. Spanish law abides by
international copyright laws and it does *not* say so at all. Which law
are you referring to. Please: pointers and appropiate paragraphs should be
helpful.
Regards
Javi
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