On 2003-09-19 19:37:59 +0100 Fedor Zuev <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:
On Wed, 17 Sep 2003, Matthew Garrett wrote:
As has been previously pointed out, fair use is far from a universal
concept.
Berne Convention, art. 10 par. 1
Par 2 says that the extent is a matter for national legislation,
assuming http://www.law.cornell.edu/treaties/berne/10.html is
accurate.
Within the United Kingdom, it doesn't exist,
Copyright, Designs and Patents Act, art. 32.
Please explain how provisions for use in education are the same as
"fair use". They do not seem to be, as neither the person copying or
the user is necessarily involved in instruction, according to the
act's definitions. IANAL but at least I can tell the difference
between "fair use" and "education use".
--
MJR/slef My Opinion Only and possibly not of any group I know.
http://mjr.towers.org.uk/ gopher://g.towers.org.uk/ [EMAIL PROTECTED]
Creative copyleft computing services via http://www.ttllp.co.uk/
