On Fri, Jun 04, 2004 at 05:24:31PM -0400, Anthony DeRobertis wrote: > >I'm not saying the originating region matters; > > It does somewhat when trying to figure out what a clause is intended to > mean. If we saw something like that in a US-based licensor's license, > we can be pretty sure it isn't trying to be a copyright assignment, > because it can't be.
Why can we be sure of that? Lots of people try to do things with copyright that they can't (often because they don't know that). I don't think that's a good way to judge what the author intended. In this case, we're probably best off asking for a clarification from the author. (I don't even use Kerberos, so I'm not up to doing that.) > Also, assume for a moment there is a jurisdiction, FOO, where copyright > assignment can be done by non-signed documents. Fred, who lives in FOO, > sends me an email with some code and a statement that he assigned the > copyright to me. Is the copyright assigned? I'd guess no. I don't know what happens if you move to FOO, though. -- Glenn Maynard