Florian Weimer <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote: > If someone claims that he has placed his software into public domain, > and the person is subject to the jurisdiction of one of the droit > d'auteur countries (Germany for example[1]), shall we interpret this > claim as null and void, or as the grant of very broad usage rights to > the general public? > > [1] Over here, you can't give up some of your rights as an author, > much like you can't sell yourself into slavery.
I would cautiously interpret it as the latter and, if possible, contact the author for a clarification. Something like the MIT/X11 license with the copyright notice and the condition removed should achieve the desired effect. -- To UNSUBSCRIBE, email to [EMAIL PROTECTED] with a subject of "unsubscribe". Trouble? Contact [EMAIL PROTECTED]
