"Andrew Donnellan" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> writes: > Why is he quoting the GPL *preamble*? Preambles aren't supposed to > have legal effect, are they?
I guess JS is as thoroughly confused about legal matters as he is about device naming. > (Interesting looking at the case of the preamble question in > Australia's 1999 constitutional referendum - the 'no' case says that > the preamble could have had legal effect.) Could you elaborate on this, or provide some pointers? -- Måns Rullgård [EMAIL PROTECTED]
