>Either my situation is different, or I'm not understanding.
Your situation is the same -- I was just using the "proper" examples. If
you substitute "customer_example.com" for "virtual.example.com" in my
example, you'll see what I mean.
>My customer, a virtual host on my Imail server, is customerexample.com, with
>an MX of mail.customerexample.com and no reverse DNS.
It *does* have a reverse DNS.
The reverse DNS entry takes an IP address and returns a host name. In this
case, both the main domain and the virtual domain will use the same IP
address, so they will both have a reverse DNS entry.
>I can't solve the reverse DNS issue for mail.customerexample.com. I guess I
>have to change the MX to mail.example.com, my server. Is this correct?
No.
Just so long as mail.customer_example.com's MX record points to a host that
has an IP address with a reverse DNS entry there is no problem. For example:
customer_example.com. MX 10 mail.customer_example.com
mail.customer_example.com A 192.168.100.12
Just so long as 192.168.100.12 has a reverse DNS entry, there will be no
problem.
-Scott
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