> No, you only need to use IPBYPASS if a "good" mailserver will be receiving > the spam and passing it on to you (typically either a gateway mailserver or > backup mailserver).
So instead of using HOP=1 when you know the IP address of the smtp gateway, it is
preferable to use IPBYPASS=[ip address]? If so, why?
It's much easier to understand what is happening that way. The HOP option is good if you have a configuration that likely will never change, and is very easy to understand (for example, your MX record is split evenly between two servers (with no backups), so all mail will go to IMail through those two servers).
Otherwise, it can get very confusing (IE "HOP 1" combined with an IPBYPASS line -- I'd have to check the manual to see how that would work).
-Scott
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