On Thu, Feb 3, 2022 at 8:50 AM 'Corey Bonnell' via
[email protected] <[email protected]> wrote:

> > Maybe this is where I’m missing an important point.  Why is the key
> compromise reason more valuable and why will it happen more efficiently and
> timely than other reasons in the case where the CA cannot validate POP?
> Both can happen “immediately” and the end result is that (just) the
> requested certificate is revoked, so does the reason code matter?
>
>
>
> I’m also very interested in learning the rationale for why keyCompromise
> revocations are seemingly treated as higher priority, especially if
> Subscribers can self-attest to such compromise without any verification by
> the CA. Any RP software that selectively ignores certain revocations based
> on Subscriber-attested reasonCode has a security flaw in that an attacker
> who can fraudulently issue a certificate can similarly request revocation
> for that certificate specifying a reasonCode that RP software doesn’t
> prioritize. The net result in that scenario is that the certificate
> lifecycle is completed, but the risk to users of such RP software is still
> very much present as the certificate may be treated as valid.
>

Corey,

Perhaps you could expand on this threat model? It sounds like your model is
that rather than the attacker evading revocation, they revoke themselves,
and that is somehow opening up a new vector?

I think that part of this may be resting on a certain statement "that the
certificate lifecycle is completed", and I'm hoping you can expand more.
The certificate lifecycle for a certificate does not necessarily end at
revocation, at least in X.509, and to Doug's earlier question, you can
indeed change reasons (or revocation dates) post-revocation. In the S/MIME
case, for example, you can revoke a certificate with revocation date of Y,
and then, upon later information, change Y to X (an earlier period),
indicating that it had actually been compromised longer.

If I understand your attack, although I'm hoping you can more precisely
explain it, it sounds like the assumption is that if the attacker
self-immolates their cert, then it's impossible to change to keyCompromise
later (e.g. as a result of the victim demonstration). Is that the implicit
assumption?

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