On 11/03/10 09:42, James Iry wrote:
But that wasn't the question. The question was "does a language have to enforce purity in order to be a functional language" and the answer is that historically that has not been the case.
I know nothing about FP, but isn't the statement 'does a language have to enforce $(PRECONDITION_X) in order to be a $(PARADIGM_LANGUAGE)' a fairly broad one? Can't most languages be programmed in such a way as to fulfill most paradigms through strict coding practices?
I guess the question then becomes a question of degrees (Logical Programming in x86 assembly?), and as I said, I know nothing about FP, so I will deftly run away.
Brave, brave Sir Robin...
