Hello, Is it documented anywhere that we're now allowed to have 2 nameserver hosts, e.g. ns1.domain1.com and ns1.domain2.com point to the same IP address, e.g. 10.0.0.1 ? (obviously, that one won't be a good one to use for the web) I recall at one time, only a 1 to 1 mapping was allowed?
If we already have a nameserver, say at ns1.domain1.com, do we need to do anything special in the configuration of the physical nameserver, if we simply create a new nameserver record of ns1.domain2.com and point it at that IP address, e.g. for vanity? (e.g. if one has DNS hosting at UltraDNS, with nameservers: udns1.ultradns.net 204.69.234.1 udns2.ultradns.net 204.74.101.1 and we simply create a 'vanity' privately-branded nameserver instead of: ns1.company.com 204.69.234.1 ns2.company.com 204.74.101.1 would that "work", without having to notify UltraDNS (i.e. is the hostname used at all, or just purely the IP address?; for webhosting, the hostname is used, e.g. name-based hosts in http 1.1) Sincerely, George Kirikos http://www.kirikos.com/ __________________________________________________ Do you Yahoo!? U2 on LAUNCH - Exclusive greatest hits videos http://launch.yahoo.com/u2
