> Hello, > > Is it documented anywhere that we're now allowed to have 2 nameserver > hosts, e.g. ns1.domain1.com and ns1.domain2.com point to the same IP > address, e.g. 10.0.0.1 ? (obviously, that one won't be a good one to > use for the web) I recall at one time, only a 1 to 1 mapping was > allowed?
I've mapped plenty hosts to one IP address. NetSol's nameserver registration allowed any domain to be registered, but haven't used it for a while since I just use my OpenSRS domains and create multiple domains based on them. So either will work. > If we already have a nameserver, say at ns1.domain1.com, do we need to > do anything special in the configuration of the physical > nameserver, if > we simply create a new nameserver record of ns1.domain2.com and point > it at that IP address, e.g. for vanity? (e.g. if one has DNS > hosting at > UltraDNS, with nameservers: > > udns1.ultradns.net 204.69.234.1 > udns2.ultradns.net 204.74.101.1 > > and we simply create a 'vanity' privately-branded nameserver instead > of: > > ns1.company.com 204.69.234.1 > ns2.company.com 204.74.101.1 > > would that "work", without having to notify UltraDNS (i.e. is the > hostname used at all, or just purely the IP address?; for webhosting, > the hostname is used, e.g. name-based hosts in http 1.1) Yes it would work, without having to notify them. Remember lookups just perform name resolution first - in the end resolvers just connect to the IP address regardless of the name. So as long as you register the host as a nameserver and point it to their Ips, you shouldn't have any problems. (unless they get pissed off with that) Andy.
