John,
Last night I downloaded Firefox 2 rc1.

It has let... and lots more js 1.7 stuff.... to bad it will take time
til MS (et al) catch up!



On 9/27/06, John Resig <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:
> Todd -
>
> You're correct, it's used to induce a contained scope.
>
> This was a technique that, if I remember correctly, I learned from
> Dean Edwards (http://dean.edwards.name/) I use to use:
>
> (function(){
>    ...
> })();
>
> but new function() { ... }; is much cleaner, IMO. As far as I know,
> that is the "best" way to have a local scope, at least until
> JavaScript 2.0 comes out and you can do:
>
> let( foo = 'bar' ) {
>    // ... do stuff with 'foo'
> }
> // foo doesn't exist out here
>
> --John
>
> On 9/27/06, Todd Menier <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:
> > Hello,
> > I've been poking around a bit in the jQuery source code. It's been
> > enlightening and has proven that I don't know as much about Javascript as I
> > thought I did!
> >
> > Here's a pattern that occurs frequently that I'm really curious about:
> >
> > new function() {
> >    // do stuff
> > }
> >
> > Is the purpose of this just to provide local scope to the variables used? Is
> > there an equivalant syntax that may be more common? I intuitively wouldn't
> > even think the code inside the function would get executed unless the whole
> > thing was proceeded by "()", but obviously I'd be wrong. What's really
> > surprising is that I couldn't find any information about this technique in a
> > google search.
> >
> > Just curious.
> >
> > Thanks,
> > Todd
> >
> > _______________________________________________
> > jQuery mailing list
> > discuss@jquery.com
> > http://jquery.com/discuss/
> >
> >
> >
>
>
> --
> John Resig
> http://ejohn.org/
> [EMAIL PROTECTED]
>
> _______________________________________________
> jQuery mailing list
> discuss@jquery.com
> http://jquery.com/discuss/
>


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