This thread says theoretically yes, but I have said that practically no,
because so far the people that have or are implementing DMARC on the
receiving side do not reject email based on SPF -all AFAIK.

So the DMARC FAQ is correct ;)

And the spec is not a moving target, it just gets better and better,
removing some places where there could be confusion.

On 7/7/12 11:43 PM, "[email protected]"
<[email protected]> wrote:

>The DMARC FAQ is apparently inaccurate based on this very thread, and
>doesn't include answers to questions I have below.
>
>Example: Does p=none alter mailflow? The FAQ says No.  This thread says
>yes in some cases.
>
>I don't know what to trust. The specification is a moving target I can't
>implement. 
>
>It took me a while to figure out the stakeholders who are vocal on this
>list versus other contributors.  Even more confusion not apparent on the
>FAQ. 
>
>Sent via BlackBerry from T-Mobile
>
>-----Original Message-----
>From: Franck Martin <[email protected]>
>Date: Sun, 8 Jul 2012 06:19:43
>To: <[email protected]><[email protected]>
>Cc: Michael Adkins<[email protected]>;
>[email protected]<[email protected]>;
>Alan Maitland<[email protected]>;
>[email protected]<[email protected]>
>Subject: Re: [dmarc-discuss] Clarification needed;     Does p=none override
>-all
> and ADSP in all cases?
>
>Like the DMARC FAQ?
>
>Toute connaissance est une réponse à une question.
>


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