Jim, JP:

Thanks for the replies, which I learned a lot from. I'm not sure they
answered my fundamental question, though, which I think is really my fault,
since I didn't state it clearly. Let me try again:

What I was originally assuming is that (a) a rise or fall in the price of
gold generally reflects a rise or fall in demand for gold and (b) a rise or
fall in the circulation of e-gold generally reflects a rise or fall in
demand for e-gold and (c) comparing the price of gold to the circulation of
e-gold is therefore a legitimate way to compare (not to correlate, not to
link, but simply to compare) the demand for gold to the demand for e-gold.
And all I want to know at this point is: Is there something wrong with that
syllogism?

As I understand it, Jim, you think there is. At least that's how I read your
statement that "the price of gold has NOTHING to do with how many grams of
e-gold are in circulation." But maybe I'm overreading?

Clearly, I muddied the question with side issues, and particularly by
repeating my wisecrack that (a), (b), and (c) "prove" e-gold is not the same
thing as "gold itself." That really was just my droll way of saying "I'm
capable of drawing a ludicrously obvious conclusion from the divergent
behavior of e-gold and gold -- how about you people tell me something I
don't already know?" I didn't intend to get into an argument about the
ontology of gold, though I certainly found you all's remarks on the subject
both interesting and illuminating.

So, hopefully we've just been misunderstanding each other here. Either that,
or I am deeply in need of a clue.

Julian



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