> I have a situation like this. We are moving to 4030 and customer wants
> some more stuff to be added to the existing Outbound 856. The typical
> example of my problem is there.
>
> A typical example of this is the Transaction Set Purpose Code(BSN01).
> Currently they have 00 as BSN01 coded in the mapping. Now they want to
> have 00,01,05 & 07 for BSN01. In this case on what basis do we map the
> BSN01? If the BSN01 is being picked up from application file then it
> would have not needed any change. As it is being hard coded in the
> mapping, now i am wondering how to accomodate 01,05, 07 along with 00
> for BSN01. It sounds to me that it doesnt have any relation of BSN02,
> i.e., ASNID. Does it?

How YOU decided to code BSN01 depends on the meaning YOU want to convey...... 
and perhaps more significantly, what your PARTNER
thinks those codes - when transmitted - mean.

Me, I'd lobby the partner really, really hard for this understanding, on the 
theory the ANSI people really meant what they said when
creating the standard:

00 - this the original transmission of the ASN with the ID in BSN02
01- this is a cancellation of the previously-sent ASN with the ID in BSN02
05- this is a change to the previously-sent ASN with the ID in BSN02
07 - this is a duplicate of the previously-sent ASN with the ID in BSN02
etc, etc, etc

Assuming you and your partner agree on what BSN01 means, and agree that you 
will start sending either as a matter of course or 'on
request'  any changes, cancellations or duplicates of already-transmitted ASNs, 
well, you can kiss your hard-coding of BSN01 in a
single map [BIG HINT HERE] goodbye. (Welcome to the Real World).

20+ years doing this Real World stuff... if professional assistance seems in 
order, that is.

Michael C. Mattias
Tal Systems Inc.
Racine WI
[EMAIL PROTECTED]
http://www.talsystems.com









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