> Does anybody know how to calculate the sample size needed to prove
> EQUIVALENCE, not difference of two treatments concerning survival data
> (log-rank test, cox regression).
Infinite?
The only situation in which I would consider a test as proving the
equivalence of
two parameters would be in a situation where plausible values were discrete
and
one could assign a low probability to the observations under _any_ situation
in
which the values differed. Usually there are cases of H_a which approach
arbitrarily
closely to H_0 so that that does not hold.
-Robert Dawson
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