On Fri, 16 Jun 2000, in reply to Bernd Genser's query

> > Does anybody know how to calculate the sample size needed to prove
> > EQUIVALENCE, not difference of two treatments concerning survival 
> > data (log-rank test, cox regression).

Robert Dawson wrote:

>     Infinite?
> 
>     The only situation in which I would consider a test as proving the
> equivalence of two parameters would be in a situation where plausible 
> values were discrete and one could assign a low probability to the 
> observations under _any_ situation in which the values differed.  
> Usually there are cases of H_a which approach arbitrarily closely to 
> H_0 so that that does not hold. 

Assuming that both of you are using "prove" in the corrupted modern 
connotation of "demonstrate" (it properly means "to test", but I'll save 
that harangue for another time), I would agree with Robert if "equality" 
be substituted for "equivalence".  But I took the querent to be asking 
about power, hence about the probability of a Type II error against some 
specified point alternative (which he hasn't specified yet):  that is, 
to determine n so that beta = Pr{accepting H0|Ha} is satisfactorily 
small (say, not larger than 0.10?) when Ha specifies a satisfactorily 
small (say, delta) departure from H0 when conducting the test at a 
specified significance level alpha.

This is a solvable problem, provided one can specify alpha, beta (or 
power = 1 - beta), delta, and the sampling distribution of the test 
statistic.  I do not know enough about Cox regression and/or the 
log-rank test to comment further. 
                                        -- DFB.
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 Donald F. Burrill                                 [EMAIL PROTECTED]
 348 Hyde Hall, Plymouth State College,          [EMAIL PROTECTED]
 MSC #29, Plymouth, NH 03264                                 603-535-2597
 184 Nashua Road, Bedford, NH 03110                          603-471-7128  



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