"Dennis Roberts" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote in message
[EMAIL PROTECTED]">news:[EMAIL PROTECTED]...
> let's say that you do a simple (well executed) 2 group study ...
> treatment/control ... and, are interested in the mean difference ... and
> find that a simple t test shows a p value (with mean in favor of
treatment)
> of .009
>
> while it generally seems to be held that such a p value would suggest that
> our null model is not likely to be correct (ie, some other alternative
> model might make more sense), does it say ANYthing more than that?
You could use it in conjunction with your sample/group sizes to get an idea
of effect size. For example, if you got that p-value with group sizes of 40
that could be a very interesting result. However, if each group contained
100,000 subjects it may not be so interesting because the effect size will
be so much smaller.
cheers
Michelle
=================================================================
Instructions for joining and leaving this list and remarks about
the problem of INAPPROPRIATE MESSAGES are available at
http://jse.stat.ncsu.edu/
=================================================================
