In <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> Donald Burrill
wrote:
> On Wed, 26 Dec 2001 [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote (edited):
>
> > > > I came across a table of costume jewelry at a department store with
> > > > a sign that said "150% off. " I asked them how much they would
> > > > pay me to take it all off of their hands. I had to explain to them
> > > > what 150% meant, and they then explained to me how percentages are
> > > > computed in the retail trade: first we cut the price in half
> > > > (50%). Then we cut it in half again. Now we have cut it in half
> > > > a third time. 50% + 50% + 50% = 150% off.
> > ...
> > > ... if they advertise a 150% discount directly, without referring
> > > to the sequence of three 50% discounts, might they not be liable to
> > > legal action for misrepresentation?
>
> > I would tell the clerk in the store, "Ah, you get 150% off by taking
> > 75%-off of 75%-off. I'll take it." (1/16 price vs. 50%-off 50%-off
> > 50%-off =1/8 price).
>
> Why settle for 1/16? Take 60% off after 90% off. Or 55% after 95%.
> Or 50% after 100%, which ought to underline the illogic even for
> arithmetically illiterate retailers.
>
> -- DFB.
> ------------------------------------------------------------------------
> Donald F. Burrill [EMAIL PROTECTED]
> 184 Nashua Road, Bedford, NH 03110 603-471-7128
>
This leads to a nice quiz question: what way of taking 150% off is most
advantageous to the seller, and what is the most advantageous way for the
buyer? Are there single optima or multiple or continuous optima, or none?
(The answer will appear upside down at the bottom of the page ;-)
--
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Lee Altenberg, Ph.D.
E-mail: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
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