On Tue, 11 Mar 2003 09:33:06 -0600, "Fred Ettish" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:
> I was given this problem and and having some difficulty understanding part > of it. > > The problem involves a .250 hitter who gets 5 at bats per game and the > question is ( I think) "What is the expected streak of games where the > batter gets a hit?" > > So > > The probability of not getting a hit at bat is .750. > The probability of no hits at 4 at bats is .750^5 = .237 > The probability of at least one hit per game is 1 - .237 = .763 > > So the longest streak is k where .763^k=1/162 > > Can anyone explain this last step? Why set it equal to 1/162? I don't know where the last step comes from, but I can say where the '162' comes from if it is U.S. Major League Baseball: That is the number of games in the 'regular season' (before playoffs). Official hitting streaks, etc., are counted for the regular season only. -- Rich Ulrich, [EMAIL PROTECTED] http://www.pitt.edu/~wpilib/index.html . . ================================================================= Instructions for joining and leaving this list, remarks about the problem of INAPPROPRIATE MESSAGES, and archives are available at: . http://jse.stat.ncsu.edu/ . =================================================================
