I was given this problem and and having some difficulty understanding part of it.
The problem involves a .250 hitter who gets 5 at bats per game and the question is ( I think) "What is the expected streak of games where the batter gets a hit?" So The probability of not getting a hit at bat is .750. The probability of no hits at 4 at bats is .750^5 = .237 The probability of at least one hit per game is 1 - .237 = .763 So the longest streak is k where .763^k=1/162 Can anyone explain this last step? Why set it equal to 1/162? Thanks . . ================================================================= Instructions for joining and leaving this list, remarks about the problem of INAPPROPRIATE MESSAGES, and archives are available at: . http://jse.stat.ncsu.edu/ . =================================================================
