On Thu, Apr 14, 2011 at 10:32 AM, Ron D'Eau Claire <[email protected]> wrote:
> A square wave's frequency.... > > > Ron, I think John is aksing about the calibrated power (John, correct me if I'm mis-stating here). If there are infinite harmonics each with amplitude = 1/N, then 1/2 of the total energy will be at the fundamental freqency, and 1/2 will be in the sum of all the higher harmonics. So if you say that the output is, say, 1 mW and the frequency is 1 MHz, does that mean that there is 1mW of output at 1 MHz and another 1 mW of output in the harmonics? or what? Tony KT0NY ______________________________________________________________ Elecraft mailing list Home: http://mailman.qth.net/mailman/listinfo/elecraft Help: http://mailman.qth.net/mmfaq.htm Post: mailto:[email protected] This list hosted by: http://www.qsl.net Please help support this email list: http://www.qsl.net/donate.html
