This has been a very interesting thread. There appears to be two distinct groups of thought. One group believes that an EU state can enforce a state law affecting trade as long as it is not in violation of a Directive. Another group seems to believe that no EU state may enforce a law the tends to impede trade. To this latter group I ask the question, what is the legal basis for this claim?
Richard Woods Sensormatic Electronics [email protected] Views expressed by the author do not necessarily represent those of Sensormatic.
