This isn’t how the LVD and associated standards works.

 

Standards are voluntary.  The legal requirement is compliance with the
Essential Health and Safety Requirements (EHSRs) of the directive.

 

It is therefore not the case that a new standard or an amendment automatically
changes a product’s status between legal and illegal (in either direction). 
The question to be answered at law is not whether or not a product complied
with a particular standard on a particular date, it is whether or not it met
the EHSRs of the Directive when the declaration was made.  In the case of an
item in continuing production, there may be a need to consider the
implications of any new or amended standard, but that’s a slightly different
point.

 

Compliance (or not) with a standard, particularly a harmonized standard giving
a presumption of conformity, is often very useful.  It is not, however, a
legal requirement.

 

Furthermore, certainly under English law, it is for the prosecution to prove
its case, not for the defence to do so.

 

John. 

________________________________

From: Kim Boll Jensen [mailto:[email protected]] 
Sent: 26 January 2011 10:50
To: [email protected]
Subject: [PSES] dow for new standards

 

Hi

 

I’m in a special situation on an LVD standard.

 

An old product has failed in the market and the discussion is now was it or
was it not legally CE marked. A new sub standard (-2-x) to a general standard
(-1) was issued and from that day the product was illegal but before it was
legal. But the new sub standard has never been on the list of harmonised
standards before. The list has therefore no dow for the standard, but in the
standard there are a dow date. My question is now:

 

1: Does the standard apply without a transitional period from the dop in the OJ

 

2: Does the dow in the standard give the end of transitional period

 

My problem is that I need an official statement of what is right since it
shall be used in court.

 

Best regards,

 

Kim Jensen

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