I think the question being posed by the anti-let camp really is, given
that on the surface both var and let do the same thing (declare a
variable), does the choice 'let' help describe how those keywords
differ in behaviour?
Peter
On 21 Aug 2008, at 18:21, David-Sarah Hopwood <[EMAIL PROTECTED]
> wrote:
> Ingvar von Schoultz wrote:
>> The problem with "let" isn't inexactness or incompleteness, it's
>> that it's completely off the mark and unrelated, when read as
>> plain English.
>
> It's not supposed to be related to plain English; it's supposed
> to be related to mathematical English usage ("let x be ...").
>
> --
> David-Sarah Hopwood
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