Do we really need it? Your «foo(1, ?, 2);» is equivalent to «a=>foo(1,a,2)». Your «foo(?, 1, ???);» is equivalent to «(a,...b)=>foo(a,1,...b)». Your «foo(1, ???, 2);» is equivalent to «(...a)=>foo(...[1,...a,2])».
Also, the ? token is already taken by the ternary conditional operator. Do we really want to overload it here for a nullary operator/special form, when we have as low overhead syntax as we already do in fat arrows for doing the exact same thing? -- David "liorean" Andersson _______________________________________________ es-discuss mailing list [email protected] https://mail.mozilla.org/listinfo/es-discuss
