# Many Worlds Theory Question

```   Hi, I'm new to this newgroup.  I have a question regarding Everett's MWI.
How and why is there a more likely probability of certain states than
others?  Everette proved that Born's probability laws exist in every world.
I have read that some states are more likely to be our world because there
are more worlds corresponding to that state than other states.  Normally, I
would assume that Born's probability laws describe how many worlds there are
corresponding to a given state, but as far as I understand it, any two
different worlds existing in exactly the same state is strictly forbidden.
Considering that every possible state does exist in some world, it seems
safe for me to conclude that there is only one world corresponding to every
state, and the chance of finding ourselves in any possible universe is just
as likely as any other.  The result would be total chaos.  It is obvious
that this is not the situation.
The only possible explanation I can think of is that Born's probability
laws don't describe how many worlds of a given state exist, but rather
directly describe the actual likelihood of a given world being ours.  But
this description doesn't make sense either, because for every split in which
we are favored to follow a certain world, there exists another world of
equally real people who assumed they would they would follow the same path,
who instead ended up in the so-called unlikely world.  Because the people in
both worlds are equally real, there is no way to say that we are more likely
to follow either path; rather, between this single-split example, the chance
would be 50/50 as to which world we would end up in.  Considering all
possible worlds, we are back to the drawing board - the chance of us
actually being in a world that isn't chaotic is pretty much nonexistant.
So, how does the MWI explain the stability of our world?```
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