Bruno Marchal:

> In Bohm's theory there is no collapse of the wave. 

No collapse of the wave-function takes place upon measurement.
One must obtain, nevertheless, the "reduced" wave-function of the
system. Once a specific result has been obtained in a measurement, 
only that term (of the global, universal superposition) counts. 
This is a sort of "effective" or, better, "pragmatic" collapse. 

> So it is indeed as deterministic as Everett formulation of QM.

Are they both non-local, at least in principle? I'm asking this
because, usually, I read that MWI is local, and that seems to me
very very strange, just because of the "split". I also read that 
the Bohmian theory is non-local (though this original non-locality 
is almost, but not entirely, suppressed by the general quantum 
"equilibrium" condition). 



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