Bruno Marchal: > In Bohm's theory there is no collapse of the wave.
No collapse of the wave-function takes place upon measurement. One must obtain, nevertheless, the "reduced" wave-function of the system. Once a specific result has been obtained in a measurement, only that term (of the global, universal superposition) counts. This is a sort of "effective" or, better, "pragmatic" collapse. > So it is indeed as deterministic as Everett formulation of QM. Are they both non-local, at least in principle? I'm asking this because, usually, I read that MWI is local, and that seems to me very very strange, just because of the "split". I also read that the Bohmian theory is non-local (though this original non-locality is almost, but not entirely, suppressed by the general quantum "equilibrium" condition). Regards, s.
