> In Bohm's theory there is no collapse of the wave.
No collapse of the wave-function takes place upon measurement.
One must obtain, nevertheless, the "reduced" wave-function of the
system. Once a specific result has been obtained in a measurement,
only that term (of the global, universal superposition) counts.
This is a sort of "effective" or, better, "pragmatic" collapse.
> So it is indeed as deterministic as Everett formulation of QM.
Are they both non-local, at least in principle? I'm asking this
because, usually, I read that MWI is local, and that seems to me
very very strange, just because of the "split". I also read that
the Bohmian theory is non-local (though this original non-locality
is almost, but not entirely, suppressed by the general quantum