Dear George,
    How does indeterminacy and multiple-world-occupation follow from an inability to deduce that one is not in a simulation?
    Also, how is multiple-world-occupation knowable 1st person unless by the means I discusses previously? Does this not violate the anthropic principle?
I am missing something. :_(
----- Original Message -----
Sent: Wednesday, May 12, 2004 1:12 AM
Subject: Re: Are we simulated by some massive computer?

Hi Stephen

Stephen Paul King wrote:
Dear George,
    My take of Russell's post is:
    Unless the creature had some experience that was not dismissible as a hallucination (1st person) and/or was witness by others (a proxy of 3rd person?) that lead him to the conclusion that it existed within a virtual reality then it would have no ability to make such a deduction.
True. But from its own point of view its world would then be indeterminate. The creature would occupy several worlds as long as this indeterminacy exists.


Reply via email to