[Brian Holtz]
If two spacetime-disconnected regions are causally disconnected (such that
none of the events in each has any possibility of influence on any events in
the other), then it seems pure artifice to say the regions are in the same
world. You could as easily say that all possible events in all possible
worlds are in fact in the same world.

Is that true? Isn't Reichenbach's common cause
a possibility? Something like: future light cones
of a and b do overlap within the future light
cone of c, and c can act on this overlap ...

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