Le 21-oct.-06, à 21:52, Charles Goodwin wrote :
> [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] On Behalf Of Peter D > Jones > >> The problem is not that there are no such resemblances in a >> Multiverse, it is that ther are far too many. How does one >> distinguishing "real" ones from "coincidental" ones. How does a Harry >> Potter film differ from a documentary? > > The only way I know of that the MWI distinguishes these is that the > "measure" of the "real ones" is Vastly larger than the "measure" of the > rest. But that is just restating things. Except, I would say that QM-without-collapse + decoherence theory explains the measure of the real one is vaster than the measure of the Harry-Potter (HP) stories, and, as DD said himself, why the probability to remains in a Harry Potter story is negligible. In a a-la-Feynman nutshell: QM entails a phase randomization making the HP story amplitude of probabilities self-destroying. But now, most presentation of QM-without collapse assumes the classical turing emulability of the observer. Then, (it is my main point), it remains to explain why we are not confronted with the classical HP stories, which, at least at first sight, have purely additive probabilities and no phase randomization to eliminate the HP one. But then the high non triviality of the classical turing emulability of the observer hypothesis (computationalism(*)), makes it possible to justfify the appearance of physicalness. (*) which btw remains true in the Hamerov doctrine where the brain is a quantum machine, comp is only false in Penrose doctrine where consciousness is presupposed to be both physical and non turing emulable. Le 21-oct.-06, à 21:52, Bob Schott wrote: > I actually adhere, just as a point of reference, to the > consciousness-created interpretation of QM, which is also held by John > Wheeler (or at least was the last I heard; he seems to change his mind > often about such matters) and some other respected physicists. Like > them, I have not as of yet fallen into the murky realm of idealism, > but who knows. It would appear to quite nicely answer a multitude of > seemingly perplexing questions, such as: How could insentient matter > ever become conscious; ever feel? Does matter produce consciousness > or visa versa? Is there really any fundamental proof for one over the > other? I think there are arguments showing that if we assume we are digital machines then the theory of matter should be retrieved from computer science/number theory/information theory. This makes the comp hyp empirically testable. Bruno http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/ --~--~---------~--~----~------------~-------~--~----~ You received this message because you are subscribed to the Google Groups "Everything List" group. To post to this group, send email to [email protected] To unsubscribe from this group, send email to [EMAIL PROTECTED] For more options, visit this group at http://groups.google.com/group/everything-list -~----------~----~----~----~------~----~------~--~---
