On 17 December 2013 15:33, Stephen Paul King <stephe...@provensecure.com>wrote:

> Hi,
> On Mon, Dec 16, 2013 at 9:28 PM, LizR <lizj...@gmail.com> wrote:
> "My point, such as it is, is that we can use the same maths for both the
> Newtonian domain in which things behave "roughly according to common sense"
> and the quantum domain in which they very much don't. The fact that the
> same maths applies to these domains, which as you pointed out are wildly
> different, at least implies that maths has an independent (or at least
> physics-domain-independent) existence. Hence it probably isn't just
> something we made up to work in one domain (roughly the Newtonian)."
>  Umm, no, the math is not the same for this two different domains!
> Therefore you're "hence..." does not follow. Sorry.
> Go on. In what was isn't it the same?

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