Hi Russell,

   I don't get it. How does the constraint of a finite sample overcome the
inherent zero measure?


On Mon, Jun 30, 2014 at 7:58 PM, Russell Standish <[email protected]>
wrote:

> On Mon, Jun 30, 2014 at 06:44:20PM -0400, Stephen Paul King wrote:
> > Hi Russell,
> >
> >    Let me rephrase. You wrote: " With COMP, the chance of our
> > physical reality appearing in UD* is 1. The only way it could be zero
> > is if COMP is false."
> >
> > ​​
> >    I never understood where the measure 1 comes from unless we first take
> > the existence of an observer to be completely defined by the UDA. If we
> > introduce a finite measure onto the UD, are we not screwing around with
> the
> > usual way of doing statistics? It is not unlike being OK with a very
> biased
> > sample.
> >
>
> By definition, UD* contains all possible experiences for all possible
> COMP observers. Therefore, you will find our reality somewhere in UD* with
> certainty.
>
> That has nothing to do with measure.
>
> Measure has to do with how likely our observed reality is, when
> sampled from the set of all possible observed realities. And that
> number is non-zero, simply by virtue that our observed reality is
> constrained by a finite number of observations.
>
> You just need to ask the right question...
>
> Cheers
>
> --
>
>
> ----------------------------------------------------------------------------
> Prof Russell Standish                  Phone 0425 253119 (mobile)
> Principal, High Performance Coders
> Visiting Professor of Mathematics      [email protected]
> University of New South Wales          http://www.hpcoders.com.au
>
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-- 

Kindest Regards,

Stephen Paul King

Senior Researcher

Mobile: (864) 567-3099

[email protected]

 http://www.provensecure.us/


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