Pierz wrote:
Thanks Bruce, that actually makes a lot of sense ... and kind of completely trashes my previous understanding! It also makes QM weirder, and even makes me doubt MWI, which reading Deutsch had convinced me was the true account.

MWI is popular, but it is not without its problems.

    As an aside, quantum probabilities as given by the Born Rule do not
    come from branch counting -- the probability is not a measure
    of the underlying universe count.

Then where do they come from? Without that notion of a measure, MWI seems not to be telling us all that much.

That just the question! Deutsch and Wallace have devoted a lot of energy trying to derive the Born rule from MWI, plus something like rational decision theory. These attempts have been widely criticized, and I agree with the criticism that the approach is basically circular: they get the Born rule only by assuming that small amplitudes correspond to small probabilities -- which is just another way of expressing the Born rule.

.......

Sorry can you clarify why branch counting is ruled out on this, ah, basis? Do you mean that there are an uncountable infinity of possible values and therefore you can't count anything? Actually this was going to be another part of my original question - surely "worlds" have to at least be countable, even if infinite? How much sense does a "continuum of worlds" make?

If space and time are continuous, there are an infinite number of possible eigenvalues for position and momentum. So you need to consider an infinite number of branches for most real-valued probabilities. And the reals form an uncountable infinity.

I think there are some technical arguments against branch counting that I can't call to mind at the moment, but I think simple arguments suffice. Consider the two-valued spin case. We only ever have at most two components to the wave function, whatever the basis. If the coefficients are such that one result has probability 1/3, and the other 2/3, branch counting would require that there be two branches giving one result with only one for the other result. Where did that extra branch come from? It is not in the formalism. And since it is necessarily identical to one of the other branches, the identity of indiscernibles would say that we only have two distinct branches. In which case, all probabilities would equal 0.5, whatever the measurement angle. And this is absurd.

Bruce


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